The Campaign Manager 360 Certification proves you can traffic, measure, and optimize digital campaigns across channels using Google’s enterprise ad-serving platform. This guide gives you all 50 Campaign Manager 360 Certification questions and answers — with the correct answer in bold — plus a clear rundown of what the exam covers and how to pass it on Google Skillshop.
Key takeaways
- The Campaign Manager 360 Certification is free on Google Skillshop, taken online, and built for users with hands-on Campaign Manager 360 experience.
- It’s a technical, scenario-heavy exam — expect questions on ad serving logic, Floodlight, VAST/video, and reporting.
- Know the hierarchy and deduplication — advertisers, placements, ads, default ads, and the single source of truth.
What the Campaign Manager 360 Certification covers
The Campaign Manager 360 Certification is one of the Google Marketing Platform exams, and it assumes real, hands-on experience. At its core is Campaign Manager 360’s role as a central ad-serving and measurement platform that deduplicates conversions across publishers into a single source of truth. You’ll be tested on the account hierarchy (advertisers, campaigns, placements, ads), how the ad server chooses what to serve using ad priority and default ads, and how targeting layers combine with AND logic.
Expect heavy coverage of Floodlight — activity groups, counter vs. sales activities, unique counting, and first-party tagging with the Google tag (gtag.js). Video is a major theme too: VAST tags, companion banners, transcoding, Active View and VPAID compatibility, and video metrics like midpoints and companion views. The Campaign Manager 360 Certification also dives into reporting — Standard, Reach, Path to Conversion, instant reporting, and scheduled deliveries — plus integrations with Display & Video 360 and Data Manager. Throughout, the exam rewards a precise, technical understanding of how each piece fits together.
How the Campaign Manager 360 Certification is scored
Like other Google Marketing Platform exams, the Campaign Manager 360 Certification is an online, multiple-choice assessment, and you need 80% to pass. Questions are detailed and scenario-based, so read each one carefully. If you don’t pass, you can retake it after a short waiting period. Working through Campaign Manager 360 Certification questions and answers first is the quickest way to find your weak spots.
How to prepare and pass on your first try
Start with the free learning path on Google Skillshop, then use the questions below as a mock exam. Because this is a hands-on exam, practise trafficking a test campaign and reading each report type. For every Google credential, see our Google certification questions and answers hub on the earnperinstall.com blog.
All 50 Campaign Manager 360 Certification questions and answers
Here are the 50 practice Campaign Manager 360 Certification questions and answers, with the correct answer for each shown in bold. Cover the answers and test yourself until you’re confident.
Q1. An agency wants to prove that their Pinterest ads are driving sales, even for users who see the ad but never click it. What must they implement in the Pinterest Ads Manager to track this?
Answer: An impression tracking pixel (1×1)
Q2. A brand is launching a 30-second in-stream video. They want a static 300×60 ad to remain visible and clickable next to the publisher’s video player after the video finishes. Which component must be assigned to the video ad?
Answer: Companion banner
Q3. An advertiser wants to serve a specific creative only to users currently browsing hiking-related articles. Which targeting method is required to achieve this content-based reach?
Answer: Contextual keyword targeting
Q4. A retailer sells both apparel and equipment on a single website where all conversions occur. To compare the two product groups independently in reporting, how should the Campaign Manager 360 hierarchy be configured?
Answer: Create a parent advertiser for the retailer and two child advertisers for the product groups
Q5. An ad ops specialist needs a generic brand ad to serve as a backup if no targeted ads are eligible for an impression. How is this backup performed in the system?
Answer: The system automatically creates a default ad with no targeting criteria
Q6. A specialist needs to share a high-value audience list from Google Analytics to Display & Video 360. Which Google Marketing Platform feature facilitates this product-to-product data link?
Answer: Integration Center
Q7. A media planner configures an ad to reach users who are in London, using an iPhone, and on a past purchasers list. If a user in London is on Android and on the list, how will the ad server respond?
Answer: It won’t serve the ad, because the user must satisfy the intersection of all three targeting layers (AND logic)
Q8. A publisher’s video player isn’t VPAID-compliant and is rejecting an advertiser’s VAST tags. Which setting should the specialist modify at the site or placement level to allow delivery?
Answer: Disable Active View
Q9. When using the Summary tab to monitor high-level campaign health, which customization option lets a user organize the dashboard view according to their business needs?
Answer: Applying filters for specific advertisers, sites, or Floodlight activities
Q10. A marketer manages two brands selling different products on a shared domain. To compare conversion performance independently while maintaining one source of truth for deduplication, how should the hierarchy be configured?
Answer: Establish a parent advertiser for the domain and assign each brand as a child advertiser
Q11. An ad ops specialist is preparing a video launch across three publishers with different VAST requirements. What’s the correct structural approach so each publisher receives the correct tag configuration?
Answer: Create a unique placement for each publisher to allow for site-specific VAST settings and companion assignments
Q12. A retailer runs a flash sale ad and a standard branding ad on the same placement. To make the flash sale ad serve first whenever a user is eligible for both, how should the priority numbers be configured?
Answer: Assign the flash sale ad a lower numerical value (e.g., 1) than the standard branding ad
Q13. An agency uploads a single high-definition .mov primary file for a video campaign. Before it can serve to users on varying connection speeds, which automated process must complete in Creative Assets?
Answer: Video transcoding, which generates multiple versions of the file in different bitrates and formats
Q14. A specialist is building a report to determine which social platform drove the most web conversions. Which dimension is required to see this breakdown in a Standard Report?
Answer: Placement or Site
Q15. A placement has a flash sale ad (Priority 1) with an expired run date and a brand awareness ad (Priority 12) with a valid run date. Which setting does Campaign Manager 360 evaluate first to determine the serving outcome?
Answer: The ad priority, which establishes the hierarchy before checking other delivery constraints
Q16. Conversion data in Campaign Manager 360 is lower than expected for Search-to-Display journeys. Which feature appends a unique ID to the landing page URL to accurately attribute click-through activities?
Answer: Enhanced attribution (using the DCLID parameter)
Q17. An eCommerce brand needs to track newsletter signups, add-to-carts, and completed purchases. What’s the functional reason for creating a Floodlight activity group before generating the specific tags?
Answer: To provide a structural container that organizes the individual activities and allows aggregated reporting at the group level
Q18. A digital marketer needs a centralized system to host varied creative formats and evaluate the deduplicated conversion impact of media across multiple publishers. Which product addresses these needs?
Answer: Campaign Manager 360
Q19. When implementing tracking for a large-scale social campaign with hundreds of ads, which Campaign Manager 360 feature should be used to improve efficiency?
Answer: Spreadsheet upload
Q20. A brand wants to serve a 15-second video ad directly into the flow of a streaming movie. Which format and tag type must be used so the ad serves before or during the video content?
Answer: In-stream video using a VAST tag
Q21. A publisher’s video environment is strictly non-VPAID compliant and will reject tags containing JavaScript wrappers. To keep the VAST XML clean and deliver the video, what must the brand do regarding Active View?
Answer: Turn off the setting at the site or placement level to remove the VPAID-dependent measurement wrapper
Q22. During setup, Campaign Manager 360 automatically generates a default ad. What’s the critical operational purpose of this ad type?
Answer: It acts as a technical safety net, making sure a creative is always available to serve when no specific delivery constraints are met
Q23. A user clicks a Facebook ad and, two days later, clicks a Google Search ad before buying. Without Campaign Manager 360, both platforms would claim the sale. How does Campaign Manager 360 solve this?
Answer: By deduplicating the conversion and assigning credit based on a single source of truth
Q24. During ad serving, a user visits a site with an available ad slot and Campaign Manager 360 selects an advertiser’s ad. What’s the immediate next step performed by the ad server?
Answer: Supplies creative based on audience and contextual signals
Q25. A media planner is translating a signed insertion order into Campaign Manager 360, defining the site, 728×90 dimensions, and $10.00 CPM cost. Which component serves as this structural placeholder?
Answer: Placement
Q26. A client running a 15-second video notices most users drop off at the 7-second mark. Which metric should they analyze to confirm how many users reached the halfway point?
Answer: Video Midpoints
Q27. An ad ops specialist gets a ‘file size exceeded’ error uploading a high-resolution source video. What’s the maximum file size allowed for a source video upload?
Answer: 1 gigabyte
Q28. An in-stream video ad includes a 300×250 display banner next to the player. The report shows 50,000 video starts but only 30,000 banner impressions. Which metric confirms how many times that display banner was rendered?
Answer: Companion Views
Q29. A specialist distributes a VAST tag to a publisher using a legacy player that doesn’t support JavaScript-based VPAID wrappers, and the tag fails to initialize. What change must be made in the placement settings?
Answer: Disable Active View for the specific site or placement to remove the VPAID wrapper from the VAST tag
Q30. A user interacts with a TikTok ad and then converts via a Google Search ad. To make sure the $500 revenue isn’t counted twice in the source-of-truth report, what must be true about the setup?
Answer: The TikTok interaction must be tracked via a Campaign Manager 360 tracking ad to allow cross-channel deduplication
Q31. A video report shows 100% completion rates on niche streaming sites, but Video Mutes and Video Pauses remain at zero. What prevents these interaction events from being recorded?
Answer: These metrics rely on the publisher’s player to fire the events and are only available at the publisher’s discretion
Q32. An agency admin needs to let a new employee upload creatives and assign them to ads, but prevent them from creating new sites or managing billing. Which user role should be assigned?
Answer: Agency trafficker
Q33. A video campaign report shows 5,000 video plays but only 500 video midpoints. What optimization action does this discrepancy suggest?
Answer: Refresh the video creative to better retain user interest in the first half of the ad
Q34. A fitness brand wants to track how many unique users visit their new member landing page during a 30-day campaign. Which Floodlight counting method makes sure each visitor is counted once?
Answer: Counter – Unique
Q35. An advertiser has conversion discrepancies due to browser limits on third-party cookies. Why does transitioning to the Google tag (gtag.js) improve measurement accuracy versus legacy IFRAME or pixel tags?
Answer: It sets first-party cookies on the advertiser’s domain, providing a more robust foundation for unified conversion tracking
Q36. An advertiser wants to track newsletter signups while deduplicating users who refresh the confirmation page. Which configuration is required?
Answer: Create a counter activity using the unique counting method
Q37. While preparing a campaign, a specialist can’t generate or download a tag sheet for an active placement. Which underlying component must they investigate first?
Answer: Verify that a default ad has been assigned to that specific item’s dimensions
Q38. A brand is launching a video campaign across 10 streaming publishers. How can the advertiser make sure the video ads, tracking pixels, and companion banners are delivered in a standardized format?
Answer: Package all assets and tracking into a single Video Ad Serving Template (VAST)
Q39. A global brand uses a parent advertiser to house its shared Floodlight configuration. If a specialist creates a new child advertiser for a regional campaign, what’s the benefit of linking it to that parent?
Answer: It allows the child to use the parent’s tags for conversion counting and audience building
Q40. A marketer notices their social and search campaigns are both claiming credit for the same $100 sale. Which report should they use to deduplicate this and see the true journey?
Answer: Path to Conversion (P2C) Report
Q41. An advertiser wants to evaluate the full sequence of ad exposures (display, video, and search) that led a user to purchase. Which report provides this holistic view of the consumer journey?
Answer: Path to Conversion Report
Q42. A media manager must provide a performance update every Monday at 9am and wants to eliminate manual weekly exports. Which configuration should be finalized in Report Builder?
Answer: Select the Active scheduling checkbox and define the delivery frequency as weekly
Q43. An advertiser stores CRM and offline conversion data in BigQuery and wants to automate importing it into Campaign Manager 360 for attribution. Which tool provides a guided UI to establish this data connection?
Answer: Data Manager
Q44. A specialist uploaded a creative and created an ad, but the ‘download tags’ option is unavailable for the placement. What step is missing?
Answer: A default ad hasn’t been assigned for that specific placement size
Q45. A retailer needs to track the total revenue and the number of items sold for every purchase event. Which Floodlight activity type and counting method should they implement?
Answer: Sales activity using the items sold counting method
Q46. An advertiser wants to measure how many people bought a product after seeing a Facebook ad, even if they never clicked it. What must be in place to capture this data?
Answer: An impression tracking pixel (1×1) implemented in the social platform’s tracking field
Q47. A media buyer wants to compare how many people saw an ad at least three times before clicking. Which report provides the frequency distribution data for this analysis?
Answer: Reach Report
Q48. A client’s video campaign shows high video plays but very low video third-quartile completions. Which optimization strategy does this data suggest?
Answer: The video content is failing to retain viewer interest, necessitating a creative refresh
Q49. A media planner needs to check if a new creative went live this morning across all 50 placements without waiting for a scheduled report. Which tool should they use for this immediate check?
Answer: Instant reporting
Q50. A media team is launching a programmatic campaign and needs creatives hosted in Campaign Manager 360 to be available for immediate activation in Display & Video 360. Which native integration streamlines this?
Answer: Automatic syncing of assets and shared Floodlight tags for unified conversion counting
Review these Campaign Manager 360 Certification questions and answers until the reasoning behind each one is clear, and you’ll be ready for the real assessment.
Frequently asked questions
Is the Campaign Manager 360 Certification free?
Yes. The Campaign Manager 360 Certification is completely free on Google Skillshop — you only need a Google account to sign in and take the exam.
What score do I need to pass?
You need 80% to pass the Campaign Manager 360 Certification, and you can retake the exam after the standard waiting period if you don’t pass the first time.
Do I need experience for this exam?
Yes. The Campaign Manager 360 Certification is designed for users with real, hands-on experience trafficking and measuring campaigns in the platform.
Are these the real exam questions and answers?
These are representative practice questions and answers for studying. The live exam is randomized and updated, so focus on understanding the concepts rather than memorizing a fixed set.
The bottom line
The Campaign Manager 360 Certification is a respected, free credential that proves you can run enterprise ad operations. Study the 50 Campaign Manager 360 Certification questions and answers above, take the free Skillshop course, and pair them with hands-on practice in the platform. Do that, and you’ll pass on your first attempt.